Tuesday, December 26, 2006

Nothing irritates more than articles in the New York Times about women and politics in foreign countries. The assumption of those articles is that there is full gender equality here in the US, unlike other countries when those countries are in reality invariably ahead of the US in terms of female political representation. Notice this article: "The assumption that politics is the domain of men has been perpetuated in part because of France’s history. The concept of universal suffrage first put forth by the 1789 revolution applied to men only, for example." French history? Is French history also responsible for the sexism, misogyny and male political domination that prevail here in the US?