David Ignatius tells the correspondent of the mouthpiece of Prince Salman (Ash-Sharq Al-Awsat) that he "understands" "the resistance of Lebanese to Israeli forces" and that he "understands" "the responses of Palestinians to Israeli forces in the West Bank and Gaza." How come he does not write that in his column and does not say that in interviews with him in US media? Or is this like `Arafat: one thing to Arab media, and another to US media?