Tuesday, October 27, 2015

Why is Palestinian violence against Israelis referred to as "pogroms" in the New York Times but not Israeli violence against Palestinians?

Especially when Israelis killed far more Palestinians than Palestinians have killed Israelis: "There is broad agreement that the mufti, who helped instigate Arab pogroms against Jews in the holy land in the 1920s".  Are there no limits to Zionist link Palestinians with Nazis?