"This group is not very influential, but it is a good representation of the state of mind among Shiites". I know that the author of the article here is too brilliant for me to fathom this sentence, but if the group is not very influential (its leader in fact received whopping 1% of Shi`ite voltes in the last parliamentary election in South Lebanon--I mean that literally, 1%, see the tally of votes in the election encyclopedia by Kamal Fghali), how can it be representative? Which way is it or is the author suffering from a severe case of cognitive dissonance? (thanks Basim)