Egypt and Jews: US and Muslims

There has been a debate about Jews of Egypt on the pages of the lousy Haaretz.  Of course, the debate is among Zionists exclusively.  It started with this article in which the author asserted the truth: that there has been no mass explosion of Jews from Egypt.  This American then responded with a frantic plethora of fabrication and unsubstantiated claims just to make the point.  But the article is ridiculous:It invents facts when no facts exists and typically projects Nazi analogies about Arabs.  Notice he does not mind fudging the issues: nationalization of wealth (affecting not only Jews) become anti-Semitic nationalization: the Cairo fire (which resulted in the fire of many stores) becomes exclusively targeted against Jewish owned stores, and when laws targeted people holding French and British citizenships, it becomes a law that only targeted Jews (when it affected non-Jewish holders of French and British citizenship).  But here is the deal: neither article talk about the Lavon Affair and about how the Zionist occupation state jeopardized the status of Jews in Arab lands in more ways than one: not only by claiming that it is a state for ALL JEWS of the world but also by recruiting among Jews of Egypt (not to mention other cases) for its terrorist Mossad operations. That was not mentioned.  But the author protesting the first article basically admits: that there was no mass expulsion but that the atmosphere became hostile, which I won't deny.  But let us compare the US after Sep. 11: 19 hijackers came from outside the US (and they were not recruited by any official state claiming to represent world Muslims--imagine if this was the case) and perpetrated a terrorist attack which was condemned by world Muslims (except some kooks).  How did the US respond? It unleashed a wave of Islamophobia and blatant hatred of Islam and Muslims from which this country has not recovered: and there were mass arrests and expulsion of innocent Muslims, and contingency plans were discussed for the internment and expulsion of Muslims . I will say this: George W. Bush AND Trump invited Rev. Franklin Graham to officiate during their inauguration, and the man is one of the most repugnant haters of Islam and Muslim in the world. If what Graham says about Muslims and Islam is said about Jews and Judaism, the man would be despised and shunned in every Western country in the world.  Instead, he is treated like a national treasure here and is received as a head of state in Western capitals.  The president of the US today has officially called for a ban on ALL Muslims.  There was no such thing under Nasser of Egypt: the regime never sanctioned an official anti-Semitic movement like there is an anti-Islam movement in the US promoted by many members of Congress (Democrats and Republicans).  So if a Muslim were to leave the US in response to the wave of Islamophobia, would that be considered a mass expulsion of Muslims from the US?  Also, notice that laws affecting Jews in Egypt were passed during the monarchy under the British colonial rule.  Is that not significant?  And most importantly, if there was such a mass explosion of Jews, how come there was always Jews in Egypt even if the numbers became very small?  But let us go back to the analogy of US and Muslims vs. Egypt and Jews: if Sep. 11 terrorism was sanctioned by a state which claims to represent ALL Muslims, would that not have resulted in even more public hostility to Muslims in the US?