Where on earth did Human Rights Watch and the Washington Post get this information from: "Of course, the war did not bring homophobia to Syria. Gay men there have long been the target of “honor killings,” as they are considered a disgrace to their families. Others have been imprisoned on the basis of Article 520 of the country’s 1949 penal code, which calls for a three-year sentence for “carnal knowledge against the order of nature.” " And while there are laws on the books, does Human Rights Watch have any information on whether people have been prosecuted under this law (which should certainly be abolished)? I know that Human Rights Watch got generous funding to study the plight of gays in the Arab world, but how credible are your reports when you report about "honor killings" when that word does NOT EVEN APPLY IN ARABIC TO CASES OF GAY MEN.
PS Also in reporting about imprisonment, is the report talking about the wholesale imprisonment that the Syrian regime imposes or is it claiming that people are being imprisoned for sexual orientation?
PPS When the report talks about gays "have long been the target of "honor killings" ", how long is long? And is there one case reported as such?
PS Also in reporting about imprisonment, is the report talking about the wholesale imprisonment that the Syrian regime imposes or is it claiming that people are being imprisoned for sexual orientation?
PPS When the report talks about gays "have long been the target of "honor killings" ", how long is long? And is there one case reported as such?
