The vulgarity of Zionist propaganda in the New York Times knows no bound: "
in that it upheld the value of equality before the law." The conviction of one person is an indication of equality before the law? What kind of logic is that? Does that mean that a conviction of white man in the American South in the 1930s was an indication of equality before the law? When New York Times reporters peddle pro-Israeli propaganda they should go slow, really.